Hi, Alembicians,
I have a question that I cannot answer to my satisfaction, and I hope this is the right part of the forum to solicit general technical insight, so here goes... I had an accidental discussion with a friend of my wife who plays/played bass in a band, and when I was talking about using low impedance pickups or a buffer circuit to enhance the clarity of the base signal, driving the signal through cables and circuits PRIOR to arriving at the pre-amp stage mostly intact, I received a stony mandate that low impedance electronics can be bad for a bass amplifier. I thought that this was as peculiar an answer when I first heard the statement as I have thought it to be over the last month of mentally gnawing on it daily.
I don't understand how can this break the amplifier? Where will it break it? The pre-amp? Will it blow a tube, will it blow a fuse, will it throw a rod; why not just tune the gain for clarity and be careful while adjusting the sound? My imprecise reasoning in this matter is that I have never heard of low impedance electronics or buffer circuits which can increase the amperage directly to the point that you have phased plasma in the 40 watt range, and presumably, increase the voltage to obscene levels in a circuit with a set impedance via V=IR.
This is similarly seen with active electronics/pre-amps, which I may incorrectly understand to increase signal voltage as the instrument's output directly for incorporation into a signal path and then for introduction into an amplifier. From tiptoeing through the internet, it seems to me that common guitar pickup voltages have been approximately cited as 0.1-1+V, rms, depending on how hot the pickup is (
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pickup_(music_technology)). As guitar pickups, and presumably bass pickups, were supposedly developed around the 12AXY tube, which begins to clip at 1.5V rms max (stolen from here:
http://www.diystompboxes.com/smfforum/index.php?topic=81285.0), that was the limit set for the amplitude of most passive pickups to avoid overloading/clipping the preamp. For bass pickups, from this TalkBass thread, I surmised that passive pickups can maintain 0.1-1+V rms for varying passive pickups, and ~4.5+ rms for active pickups, which may be too hot for a single 12AXY tube. None of these data address signal or potential loss due to the capacitance of the cable to the amp or any intervening circuits prior to the preamp; however, that would only seem to offset this supposedly detrimental magnitude of amperage or voltage from the instrument on an amplifier.
Now, this data and the indication that guitars and basses are constructed with existing technology in mind leads to the real question: who would build a set of pickups or electronics that would destroy pre-amps or power amps via negligence? There is little to no talk of intervening circuits being necessary to abate the low impedance signal coming from your instrument as if it were an asteroid rocketing through your cable. Instead, I have only seen that more current or voltage into the pre-amp would induce clipping and potentially generate square-wave distortion at that place in the signal path. Thus, it seems to me, any instrument that was too "hot" could just be dialed down in the initial preamp stage, should it be necessary.
Again, these are the two questions which fail the litmus test- who would break from common sense and engineering tradition by building an unreliable, destructive circuit into your instrument that decimates pre-amps WITH EXTREME PREJUDICE due to a few inherent engineering flaws, AND why you could not design newer amplifiers to accept this supposedly science-fiction-like signal, regardless? At this point, I don't see where Alembics and other pickups were designed to SLAY all amplifiers, like Genghis Khan scything through the Steppes. Are there no fuses/breakers in the amp? Was this not worried about when incorporating stomp boxes or daisy chaining amps like Hendrix and his legion of Plexi SuperLeads behind him? I am sure that this caveat must have been address, likely by Alembic while modding gear or producing the initial Series instruments, as I don't recall ever being told to NOT plug an Alembic or a set of EMGs/Bartolinis/etc. into a cheap practice amp, nor be told to NOT floor it. I mean, I already have done just that, and nothing started to smell like burning plastic or brimstone, so unless preamp inputs have bigger and heftier impedances to stave off potential/signal, I am really confused (obviously).
For the record, I have read that the output from bass can work fine with the electronics of a guitar amp (re: Lemmy, a Rickenbacker, and a mountain of Marshalls), but that setups can destroy speakers in the cabinets, and the reflexive jump in resistance after frying cones can potentially then cook fuses or transformers if the wrong enclosures were used and can't provide the right peak to peak range. So, since I am lost on the other person's point which did not have a concrete reason at the time, and since, this now feels like a "If one train leaves Cleveland heading towards Chicago at 100 miles per hour, and one train leaves Sacramento heading to Pluto at the speed of light....." on the SAT, I would love it if someone who comes across this frustrating quandry/thread can help me either call shenanigans or take my medicine. I can't prove it one way or another to myself due to my lack of experience with electronics, shy of "plug and play", and trying to figure this out and understand the circuity/electrodynamics is driving me bananas. I also really stink at physics, so, the best I could muster then and now is the gain argument, different inputs for active and passive basses in some amps, and amplifiers being chock full of resistors and at least one fuse, that this cannot be unfathomable. But it feels like a really weak point, and I would like to understand this point from an educational point of view, and not bragging rights. Yeesh.
Thanks again, folks.
-Zut8083