I've read a bunch of threads here on this issue, but I'm still not sure I've seen the definitive answer. From a thread back in 2004, it was posited that the pan should accomplish virtually the same thing as two separate volume pots, because at the same output level, the pan pot adjusts the ratio of the two pickups. Thus, for every setting of two separate volume controls, you can choose the appropriate identical ratio on the pan, and then adjust for the same output using the single volume control. My question is, for two otherwise identical basses, one having volume-pan and the other having volume-volume, is the pan wired such that with volume at max and pan in the center, you have the same setting as volume-volume both set at max? That way, you'd have the same max output. At that point, variations in the pan knob would yield different ratios of the pickups, with total output regulated by the volume knob.
I suppose there's a corollary: is there a different tone achievable by, say, setting the volume-volume at 50-50, versus setting the pan at center and adjusting the single volume to 50% volume? Likewise, would a 75-25 volume volume setting be the same as setting the pan to 3:1 ratio and adjusting the volume to achieve the same output? Theoretically, it seems that the combination of volume-pan should be able to achieve every possible setting of volume-volume. If true, then the advantage of the volume-pan setup is that you can adjust the ratio of pickups without changing the overall output, and having to adjust only a single knob (this assumes, of course, that the gain trim pots and pickup heights are set so that the two pickups have equal total output). The advantage of the separate volumes would be the ability to mix in each pickup individually. But each should be able to reach the same ratio and same volume, right?
On the other hand, the volume-pan would be able to achieve max output for ALL ratios of pickups, while the volume-volume setup would only achieve max output at full 100-100 setting. I'll call this scheme 1.
I'm wondering if the volume-volume setup actually produces double the volume at full 100-100 as compared to the pan at center and full volume. In which case the volume-pan setup at max output and centered pan might be more reasonably set to achieve, say, the same as 50-50 on a volume-volume (or 75-75, or whatever makes the most sense), in order for both basses to achieve all ratios at all volumes, but then the volume-volume would be able to produce higher output at its full 100-100 setting. If this is the case, the volume-volume setup actually has more variability because it can achieve all ratios of pickups and at a wider range of output levels. I'll call this scheme 2.
(I'm actually guessing the way it really works is a collapse of scheme 2 into a modified scheme 1 due to nonlinearity, as I'll try to explain below.)
I hope I've not managed to confuse everything here!
Anyway, for example, consider the following settings for volume-volume and volume-pan, for which I've tried to make them equivalent, with volumes stated as percentage and pan stated as a ratio of neck to bridge, and assuming scheme 1, that the 100-100 setting on a volume-volume equals the 100-1:1 (centered pan) on a volume-pan:
Vn-Vb...........V-P
100-100.......100-1:1 (centered)
75-75............75-1:1 (centered)
50-50............50-1:1 (centered)
100-50..........75-2:1 (pan turned to favor neck)
75-25............50-3:1 (pan turned to favor neck even more)
90-30............60-3:1 (same)
question: note that the volume-pan setup can now add volume and maintain the 3:1 ratio all the way to full output, but the volume-volume can only increase output at this ratio until it reaches 100-33, at which point adding output can only be done by adding to the bridge pickup, thus changing the ratio.
Under a scheme 2 regime where the max output of a volume-pan is at 75% that of a volume-volume, the above chart would look like this:
Vn-Vb..........V-P
100-100.........x (not possible)
75-75...........100-1:1 (centered)
50-50............67-1:1 (centered)
100-50.........100-2:1 (pan turned to favor neck)
75-25............67-3:1 (pan turned to favor neck even more)
90-30............80-3:1 (same)
You can see here that the volume volume has a setting that the volume-pan can not achieve. Perhaps the internal trims can be upped to achieve the same total max output? Thus, if both basses have the same total max output, as set by the maximum settings of the trim pots, we're back to scheme 1, where the max output of the volume-pan can be reached for ALL ratios of pickups, but the volume-volume setup can't duplicate this.
Finally, I wonder if these things are simply not linear, so that a volume-pan does not in fact achieve max volume for all ratios but instead achieves exactly the same as the volume volume, by keeping the ratio up as far as it can with increaseson the volume knob, until increasing the volume knob more necessarily changes the ratio because one pickup has already maxed out. Thus, on the volume-volume set at 100-33, if you add output by increasing the bridge pickup. you'd actually be doing the same thing on the volume-pan by increasing the volume from 67% upwards.
For practical purposes, of course, I have no doubt that each has its advantages and it comes down to how I make adjustments on the fly anyway. But I'm just curious about whether they really are capable of the same thing.
Does this analysis make sense? Why am I going here? Because I'd like to upgrade the electronics in my custom, which currently has Elan electronics, and I'm trying to decide between signature and anniversary!
Mark
(Message edited by grok on April 14, 2008)